An Act to amend the Casino Control Act 1982, the Casino Control Regulation 1999, the Charitable and Non-Profit Gaming Act 1999, the Child Protection Act 1999, the Civil Proceedings Act 2011, the Coroners Act 2003, the Criminal Code, the District Court of Queensland Act 1967, the Evidence Act 1977, the Housing Act 2003, the Information Privacy Act 2009, the Integrity Act 2009, the Justices of the Peace and Commissioners for Declarations Act 1991, the Land Act 1994, the Land Court Act 2000, the Magistrates Courts Act 1921, the Ombudsman Act 2001, the Penalties and Sentences Act 1992, the Personal Injuries Proceedings Act 2002, the Police Service Administration Act 1990, the Property Law Act 2023, the Public Records Act 2023, the Right to Information Act 2009, the Second-hand Dealers and Pawnbrokers Act 2003, the Security Providers Act 1993, the Supreme Court of Queensland Act 1991 and the Uniform Civil Procedure Rules 1999 for particular purposes, and to repeal the Brisbane Casino Agreement Act 1992
The Parliament of Queensland enacts—
This Act may be cited as the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026.
(1)The following provisions commence on the day that is 7 days after the date of assent—(a)parts 2 to 7, 10 to 24 and 26 to 29;(b)part 8, other than sections 49 to 52;(c)part 9, other than sections 62 and 63.(2)Sections 62 and 63 commence on 1 January 2027.(3)The following provisions commence on a day to be fixed by proclamation—(a)sections 49 to 52;(b)part 25.
Part 2 Amendment of Casino Control Act 1982
This part amends the Casino Control Act 1982.
4Amendment of s 155 (Supervision levy)
Section 155(3), definition Brisbane casino—
insert—The Brisbane Casino Agreement Act 1992 was repealed by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026.
5Amendment of schedule (Dictionary)
(1)Schedule, definition agreement Act, paragraph (b)—
omit.(2)Schedule, definition agreement Act, paragraphs (c) to (e)—
renumber as paragraphs (b) to (d).
Part 3 Amendment of Casino Control Regulation 1999
This part amends the Casino Control Regulation 1999.
7Amendment of s 19 (Percentage determined for casino gross revenue—Act, s 51(4))
(1)Section 19(1)(a)—
omit.(2)Section 19(1)(b) to (d)—
renumber as section 19(1)(a) to (c).
8Amendment of s 46D (Proportion of total amount of supervision levy for casino licensee—Act, s 50B)
(1)Section 46D(1) and (2)—
omit, insert—(1)This section prescribes for section 50B(3) of the Act the proportion of the total levy amount for which a casino licensee is liable for a financial year.(2)The proportion of the total levy amount for which the casino licensee is liable is stated in the table, column 2 opposite the casino, the subject of the licensee’s casino licence, mentioned in column 1 of the table—(2)Section 46D(3), table, heading—
omit, insert—Table—Proportion of total levy amount for each financial year
(3)Section 46D(3), table, as amended—
relocate to subsection (2).(4)Section 46D(3)—
omit.(5)Section 46D(4), definition Brisbane Casino—
omit.(6)Section 46D(4)—
renumber as section 46D(3).
Part 4 Amendment of Charitable and Non-Profit Gaming Act 1999
This part amends the Charitable and Non-Profit Gaming Act 1999.
10Amendment of s 181 (Interaction with Casino Acts)
(1)Section 181(3), definition Casino Acts, paragraph (b)—
omit.(2)Section 181(3), definition Casino Acts—
insert—(e)Queen’s Wharf Brisbane Act 2016.
11Replacement of pt 10, hdg (Transitional provisions and repeal)
Part 10, heading—
omit, insert—
12Insertion of new pt 10, div 4
Part 10—
insert—Division 4 Transitional and validation provision for Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026
200Retrospective operation of s 181 and validation of permissions and approvals
(1)The amendment of section 181 by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026, section 10(2) (the amendment) is taken to have had effect from the beginning of 27 May 2016.(2)A permission or approval given by the State under section 181 on or after 27 May 2016 is taken to be, and always to have been, as valid and lawful as it would have been if the amendment had commenced on that day.(3)No compensation is payable by the State to any person for, or in connection with, the giving of a permission or approval under section 181 to the extent that compensation would not have been payable if the amendment had commenced on 27 May 2016.
Part 5 Amendment of Child Protection Act 1999
This part amends the Child Protection Act 1999.
14Amendment of s 193 (Restrictions on reporting certain court proceedings)
Section 193(5)(c)—
omit.
15Amendment of s 194 (Publication of information identifying child victim)
Section 194(2)(c)(iii)—
omit.
Part 6 Amendment of Civil Proceedings Act 2011
This part amends the Civil Proceedings Act 2011.
17Amendment of s 90 (Enforcement warrant)
(1)Section 90—
insert—(2A)Also, an enforcement warrant may contain a charging order.(2)Section 90(3), ‘An’—
omit, insert—In addition, an
(3)Section 90(4)—
omit.(4)Section 90(2A) and (3)—
renumber as section 90(3) and (4).
After part 18—
insert—114Application of amended s 90
Section 90, as amended by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026, applies in relation to an original order under section 90(1) only if the original order is made after the commencement.
Part 7 Amendment of Coroners Act 2003
This part amends the Coroners Act 2003.
20Amendment of s 7 (Duty to report deaths)
(1)Section 7(2), ‘or (e)’—
omit, insert—, (e) or (f)
(2)Section 7(8)—
insert—NDIS provider see the National Disability Insurance Scheme Act 2013 (Cwlth), section 9.(3)Section 7(8), definition relevant service provider—
insert—(c)in relation to the death in care of a person mentioned in section 9(1)(f)—the NDIS provider, or registered NDIS provider, that was providing the services or supports mentioned in that section.
21Amendment of s 8 (Reportable death defined)
Section 8(6)—
omit.
After section 8—
insert—An unnatural death includes the death of a person who dies at any time after receiving an injury if—(a)the injury caused the death; or(b)both of the following apply—(i)the injury contributed to the death;(ii)the person would not have died if the person had not received the injury.•a person’s death resulting from injuries sustained by the person in a motor vehicle accident many months before the death•a person’s death caused by a subdural haematoma not resulting from a bleeding disorder
23Amendment of s 9 (Death in care defined)
(1)Section 9(1)—
insert—(f)the person—(i)was not living in a private dwelling or an aged care facility; and(ii)was receiving services or supports under—(A)the program administered by the Commonwealth known as the Disability Support for Older Australians Program; or(B)another program administered by the Commonwealth prescribed by regulation.(2)Section 9(4), ‘and (e)’—
omit, insert—, (e) and (f)
(3)Section 9(5), definition NDIS Act—
omit.
24Amendment of s 11 (Deaths to be investigated—generally)
Section 11(7)—
omit, insert—(7)Despite subsection (2), only the State Coroner, a Deputy State Coroner or a coroner approved under subsection (8) may investigate the following deaths—(a)a death in custody that is an unnatural death;(b)a death mentioned in section 8(3)(h), other than a death in custody, that is an unnatural death.(8)The Governor in Council, on the recommendation of the Chief Magistrate in consultation with the State Coroner, may approve an appointed coroner, or a local coroner, to investigate—(a)a death mentioned in subsection (7)(a) or (b); or(b)deaths of a type mentioned in subsection (7)(a) or (b).
25Amendment of s 12 (Not investigating or stopping investigation of particular deaths)
Section 12—
insert—(5)In this section—natural death means the death of a person that is not an unnatural death.
26Amendment of s 45 (Coroner’s findings)
(1)Section 45—
insert—(5A)However, subsection (5) does not prevent the coroner from including in the findings a statement that the coroner has given, or intends to give, information to an entity under section 48.(2)Section 45(5A) and (6)—
renumber as section 45(6) and (7).
27Amendment of s 46 (Coroner’s comments)
Section 46—
insert—(4)However, subsection (3) does not prevent the coroner from including in the comments a statement that the coroner has given, or intends to give, information to an entity under section 48.
28Amendment of s 47 (Coroner’s findings and comments for particular deaths)
Section 47(2)—
insert—(d)for the death of a person mentioned in section 9(1)(e) or (f)—the Commissioner of the NDIS Quality and Safeguards Commission under the NDIS Act.
29Amendment of s 54 (Access to investigation documents for other purposes)
Section 54(2)(b) and (c)—
omit, insert—(b)if the coroner mentioned in paragraph (a) is not available—another coroner nominated by the State Coroner.
30Amendment of s 71 (Functions and powers of State Coroner)
(1)Section 71(1)(e)—
omit, insert—(e)to be responsible, together with each Deputy State Coroner and approved coroner, for all investigations into the following deaths—(i)a death in custody that is an unnatural death;(ii)a death mentioned in section 8(3)(h), other than a death in custody, that is an unnatural death; and(2) Section 71(13)—
insert—approved coroner, in relation to a death mentioned in subsection (1)(e), means a coroner approved under section 11(8) to investigate the particular death or deaths of that type.
31Replacement of s 86 (Delegation of duties or powers to registrar or deputy registrars)
Section 86—
omit, insert—86Delegation of functions of coroners to registrars or deputy registrars
(1)The State Coroner may delegate the functions of a coroner, under this Act or another Act, to the following persons (each a delegate)—(a)a registrar;(b)an appropriately qualified deputy registrar.(2)However, subsection (1) does not apply in relation to the following functions of a coroner—(a)a function under section 11(7) or 11AAA(1);(b)a function, under part 3, division 3, that is related to an inquest;(c)a function related to the issue or execution of a search warrant under the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000;See section 13(4) and (5) and the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000, section 599(1).(d)a function under section 54AA, 54A, 54B or 91Z;(e)another function prescribed by regulation.(3)Before delegating a function of a coroner to a deputy registrar, the State Coroner must consult with the chief executive about the amount of work to be done by the deputy registrar under the delegation.(4)If the State Coroner delegates a function of a particular coroner to a delegate, the Acts Interpretation Act 1954, section 27A(3C), (3D), (7), (8), (10) and (10A) applies as if the delegator mentioned in those subsections were the coroner.(5)If the State Coroner delegates a function relating to the investigation of a death or suspected death to a delegate, and the delegate believes for any reason that it is inappropriate for the delegate to perform the function, the delegate must, as soon as practicable—(a)stop performing the function; and(b)give a coroner a written notice stating the reasons for the delegate’s belief.(6)In this section—functions includes powers.
32Amendment of s 91B (Definitions for pt 4A)
(1)Section 91B, definitions chairperson and deputy chairperson—
omit.(2)Section 91B—
insert—chairperson means the chairperson of the board holding office under section 91K.deputy chairperson means the deputy chairperson of the board holding office under section 91M.
33Amendment of s 91K (Chairperson)
Section 91K(1)—
omit, insert—(1)The Minister must appoint 1 of the following persons to be the chairperson of the board—(a)the State Coroner;(b)a Deputy State Coroner;(c)another appropriately qualified coroner.
34Insertion of new pt 6, div 8
Part 6—
insert—In this division—new, in relation to a provision of this Act, means the provision as in force from the commencement.121Application of new s 11 to deaths reported before the commencement
New section 11 applies in relation to a death, whether the death was or is reported under section 7 before or after the commencement.122Existing delegations of duties or powers
(1)This section applies if—(a)before the commencement, the State Coroner or another coroner delegated a duty or power to a registrar or deputy registrar under former section 86; and(b)immediately before the commencement, the delegation was in effect; and(c)under new section 86, the State Coroner may delegate the duty or power to the registrar or deputy registrar.(2)From the commencement, the delegation continues to have effect as if it had been made by the State Coroner under new section 86.(3)In this section—former section 86 means section 86 as in force from time to time before the commencement.
35Amendment of sch 2 (Dictionary)
Schedule 2—
insert—NDIS Act means the National Disability Insurance Scheme Act 2013 (Cwlth).unnatural death see section 8A.
Part 8 Amendment of Criminal Code
This part amends the Criminal Code.
37Amendment of s 1 (Definitions)
Section 1—
insert—disaster operations see the Disaster Management Act 2003, section 15.public facility or infrastructure means any of the following, whether publicly or privately owned—(a)a facility or infrastructure for a water or sewerage service;(b)a facility or infrastructure for supplying energy or fuel to the public;(c)a facility or infrastructure for a telecommunication system;(d)roads, railways, equipment, vehicles or other infrastructure for public transport;(e)another facility or infrastructure for a community service.valuable metal component means a component, containing metal, of a valuable metal item.valuable metal item see section 6B.
After section 6A—
insert—6BMeaning of valuable metal item
(1)In this Code—
valuable metal item means—(a)a catalytic converter or diesel particulate filter; or(b)an item containing metal used for the operation of a facility or infrastructure relating to—(i)water or sewerage services; or(ii)supply of energy or fuel; or(iii)telecommunication services; or(iv)transportation on a railway or road, on the water, or in the air; or(c)an item containing metal that is part of, or is intended to be part of, a facility or infrastructure mentioned in paragraph (b); or(d)an item containing metal used to manage traffic or safety—(i)on a bikeway, footpath, railway or road; or(ii)on the water; or(iii)in the air; or(e)any of the following items containing metal used for a relevant purpose—(i)cladding, flashing, guttering or roofing;(ii)electrical equipment;(iii)a pipe, pole or tube;(iv)another item prescribed by regulation.(2)For subsection (1), definition valuable metal item, paragraph (e), an item is used for a relevant purpose if—(a)the item is used for the operation of a facility or infrastructure relating to any of the following—(i)exploration of natural resources;(ii)management of public safety;(iii)production of goods from agriculture, aquaculture, fishery, forestry, manufacturing or mining;(iv)provision of community, education or medical services;(v)provision of arts, recreation or sports;(vi)provision of retail services;(vii)storage of greenhouse gas; or(b)the item is part of, or is intended to be part of, a facility or infrastructure mentioned in paragraph (a); or(c)the item is used for construction and is at a construction site; or(d)the item forms part of any premises that have never been occupied and are not abandoned.(3)In this section—electrical equipment means any apparatus, cabling or wiring—(a)used for controlling, generating, supplying, transforming or transmitting electricity; or(b)operated by electricity.used includes intended to be used.
39Amendment of s 398 (Punishment of stealing)
(1)Section 398, punishment in special cases, clause 2(1)(a) and (b), ‘10 penalty units’—
omit, insert—20 penalty units
(2)Section 398, punishment in special cases—
insert—17Stealing valuable metal item or component
If the thing stolen was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component at the time the thing was taken or converted, the offender is liable to imprisonment for 10 years.18Stealing valuable metal item or component and disruption to public facility or infrastructure
If—(a)the thing stolen was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component at the time the thing was taken or converted; and(b)the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure is disrupted because the thing is stolen;the offender is liable to imprisonment for 14 years.19Stealing valuable metal item or component and endangering persons
If—(a)the thing stolen was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component at the time the thing was taken or converted; and(b)the life or health of a person is endangered, or is likely to be endangered, because the thing is stolen;the offender is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.20Stealing valuable metal item or component—disasters
If the thing stolen was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component at the time the thing was taken or converted and any of the following apply—(a)the offence is committed in an area in which disaster operations are being undertaken under the Disaster Management Act 2003 to the extent—(i)the operations are being undertaken during the phase mentioned in the Disaster Management Act 2003, section 4A(a)(iii); and(ii)the operations are being undertaken in anticipation of a natural disaster;(b)the offence is committed during a natural disaster;(c)the offence is committed in an area that—the offender is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.(i)is a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003; or(ii)was, immediately before the offence was committed, a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003;21Stealing telecommunication cable and disruption to public facility or infrastructure
If—(a)the thing stolen was a cable used for telecommunication at the time the thing was taken or converted; and(b)the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure is disrupted because the thing is stolen;the offender is liable to imprisonment for 14 years.22Stealing telecommunication cable and endangering persons
If—(a)the thing stolen was a cable used for telecommunication at the time the thing was taken or converted; and(b)the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure is disrupted because the thing is stolen; and(c)the life or health of a person is endangered, or is likely to be endangered, because of the disruption;the offender is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.23Stealing telecommunication cable—disasters
If the thing stolen was a cable used for telecommunication at the time the thing was taken or converted and any of the following apply—(a)the offence is committed in an area in which disaster operations are being undertaken under the Disaster Management Act 2003 to the extent—(i)the operations are being undertaken during the phase mentioned in the Disaster Management Act 2003, section 4A(a)(iii); and(ii)the operations are being undertaken in anticipation of a natural disaster;(b)the offence is committed during a natural disaster;(c)the offence is committed in an area that—the offender is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.(i)is a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003; or(ii)was, immediately before the offence was committed, a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003;
40Insertion of new ss 400 and 401
After section 399—
insert—400Attempted stealing of valuable metal item or component
(1)Any person who attempts to steal a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 7 years.(2)The Penalties and Sentences Act 1992, section 161Q states a circumstance of aggravation for an offence against this section.(3)An indictment charging an offence against this section with the circumstance of aggravation stated in the Penalties and Sentences Act 1992, section 161Q may not be presented without the consent of a Crown Law Officer.401Unlawful possession of prescribed metal item
(1)A person must not unlawfully possess a prescribed metal item reasonably suspected of being stolen.Maximum penalty—3 years imprisonment.
(2)For subsection (1), possession of a prescribed metal item is unlawful unless it is authorised or justified or excused by law.(3)It is a defence to a charge of an offence against this section to prove the accused person had no reasonable grounds for suspecting the prescribed metal item was stolen.(4)In this section—prescribed metal item means—(a)a catalytic converter or diesel particulate filter; or(b)cabling or wiring.
41Amendment of s 433 (Receiving tainted property)
Section 433(1), penalty, before paragraph (a)—
insert—(aa)if the property was stolen and, at the time it was stolen, the property was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component and the offender received the property while acting as a pawnbroker or dealer in second hand goods, under a licence or otherwise—20 years imprisonment; or(ab)if the property was stolen and, at the time it was stolen, the property was a valuable metal item or a valuable metal component—16 years imprisonment; or
42Amendment of s 444A (Killing animals with intent to steal)
Section 444A(2), ‘10 penalty units’—
omit, insert—20 penalty units
43Amendment of s 444B (Using registered brands with criminal intention)
Section 444B(2), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
44Amendment of s 445 (Unlawfully using stock)
Section 445(1), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
45Amendment of s 446 (Suspicion of stealing stock)
Section 446(1), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
46Amendment of s 447 (Illegal branding)
Section 447(1), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
47Amendment of s 448 (Defacing brands)
Section 448(1), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
48Amendment of s 448A (Having in possession stock with defaced brand)
Section 448A(1), ‘4 penalty units’—
omit, insert—10 penalty units
49Amendment of s 450EB (Application for stock disposal order)
(1)Section 450EB—
insert—(4A)The applicant must, at least 14 days before the hearing of the application, file an affidavit stating the following—(a)each person to whom the applicant gave a copy of the application under subsection (4);(b)each person to whom the applicant could not give a copy of the application under subsection (4) because the person could not reasonably be located.(2)Section 450EB(4A) and (5)—
renumber as section 450EB(5) and (6).
50Amendment of s 450EC (Affidavit to accompany application)
Section 450EC(h) and (i)—
omit.
51Amendment of s 450ED (When order may be made if party disputes making of order)
Section 450ED(e), ‘his or her’—
omit, insert—their
52Amendment of s 450F (Animal valuers and valuations)
(1)Section 450F(1) and (2)—
omit, insert—(1)The chief executive may appoint a person as an animal valuer to determine the value of an animal for the purposes of a provision of this Code.(2)Section 450F(3)(b), from ‘qualifications,’ to ‘experience’—
omit, insert—eligibility and suitability requirements
(3)Section 450F(3)(c), ‘fees’—
omit, insert—remuneration
(4)Section 450F(3)(f), (g) and (k)—
omit.(5)Section 450F(3)(l), ‘meetings of panels and’—
omit, insert—the
(6)Section 450F(3)(m), ‘panels’—
omit, insert—animal valuers
(7)Section 450F(3)(r)(ii)—
omit.(8)Section 450F(3)(r)(iii)—
renumber as section 450F(3)(r)(ii).(9)Section 450F(3)(h) to (s)—
renumber as section 450F(3)(f) to (p).(10)Section 450F(3)—
renumber as section 450F(2).
53Amendment of s 468 (Injuring animals)
(1)Section 468(6), definition prescribed penalty units, paragraph (a), ‘10 penalty units’—
omit, insert—20 penalty units
(2)Section 468(6), definition prescribed penalty units, paragraph (b), ‘8 penalty units’—
omit, insert—16 penalty units
54Amendment of s 469 (Wilful damage)
Section 469, punishment in special cases—
insert—14Valuable metal item and disruption to public facility or infrastructure
If—(a)the property in question is a valuable metal item; and(b)the destruction or damage disrupts the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure;the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 14 years.15Valuable metal item and endangering persons
If—(a)the property in question is a valuable metal item; and(b)the destruction or damage endangers, or is likely to endanger, the life or health of a person;the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.16Valuable metal item and disasters
If the property in question is a valuable metal item and any of the following apply—(a)the offence is committed in an area in which disaster operations are being undertaken under the Disaster Management Act 2003 to the extent—(i)the operations are being undertaken during the phase mentioned in the Disaster Management Act 2003, section 4A(a)(iii); and(ii)the operations are being undertaken in anticipation of a natural disaster;(b)the offence is committed during a natural disaster;(c)the offence is committed in an area that—the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.(i)is a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003; or(ii)was, immediately before the offence was committed, a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003;17Telecommunication cable and disruption to public facility or infrastructure
If—(a)the property in question is a cable used for telecommunication; and(b)the destruction or damage disrupts the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure;the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 14 years.18Telecommunication cable and endangering persons
If—(a)the property in question is a cable used for telecommunication; and(b)the destruction or damage disrupts the operation or use of a public facility or infrastructure; and(c)the life or health of a person is endangered, or is likely to be endangered, because of the disruption;the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.19Telecommunication cable and disasters
If the property in question is a cable used for telecommunication and any of the following apply—(a)the offence is committed in an area in which disaster operations are being undertaken under the Disaster Management Act 2003 to the extent—(i)the operations are being undertaken during the phase mentioned in the Disaster Management Act 2003, section 4A(a)(iii); and(ii)the operations are being undertaken in anticipation of a natural disaster;(b)the offence is committed during a natural disaster;(c)the offence is committed in an area that—the offender commits a crime and is liable to imprisonment for 25 years.(i)is a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003; or(ii)was, immediately before the offence was committed, a declared area for a disaster situation under the Disaster Management Act 2003;
55Amendment of s 552BB (Excluded offences)
(1)Section 552BB, table, entry for section 398, column 3—
insert—
4
The offender is liable to punishment under clauses 17 (Stealing valuable metal item or component), 18 (Stealing valuable metal item or component and disruption to public facility or infrastructure), 19 (Stealing valuable metal item or component and endangering persons), 20 (Stealing valuable metal item or component—disasters), 21 (Stealing telecommunication cable and disruption to public facility or infrastructure), 22 (Stealing telecommunication cable and endangering persons) or 23 (Stealing telecommunication cable—disasters).
(2)Section 552BB, table, entry for section 433, column 3—
insert—
2
The offender is liable to 20 years imprisonment under section 433(1), penalty, paragraph (aa).
3
The offender is liable to 16 years imprisonment under section 433(1), penalty, paragraph (ab).
(3)Section 552BB, table, entry for section 469, column 3, from ‘or 7’—
omit, insert—, 7 (Other things of special value), 14 (Valuable metal item and disruption to public facility or infrastructure), 15 (Valuable metal item and endangering persons), 16 (Valuable metal item and disasters), 17 (Telecommunication cable and disruption to public facility or infrastructure), 18 (Telecommunication cable and endangering persons) or 19 (Telecommunication cable and disasters).
Part 9 Amendment of District Court of Queensland Act 1967
This part amends the District Court of Queensland Act 1967.
57Amendment of s 14 (Retirement of judges)
Section 14(2)—
insert—(c)a retired Supreme Court judge or retired District Court judge appointed as a reserve judge under section 18(1) remains a reserve judge until the judge’s appointment ends.
58Amendment of s 18 (Reserve judges)
Section 18(3)(b)(i), ‘retired’—
omit, insert—retired Supreme Court judge or retired
After section 18A—
insert—18BDeclaration about when reserve judge enters on duties of office
(1)This section applies in relation to each appointment of a person as a reserve judge under section 18, whether or not the person has previously been appointed as a reserve judge.(2)To remove any doubt, it is declared, for the Constitution of Queensland 2001, section 59(2), that the person enters on the duties of office as a reserve judge only when the person starts to undertake the duties under the person’s first engagement under section 18A after the appointment is made.
60Insertion of new ss 40A and 40B
After section 40—
insert—40A Disclosure of alleged offender information to accredited media entities
(1)A registrar may disclose alleged offender information to an accredited media entity.(2)The accredited media entity may use the alleged offender information only to the extent necessary to enable the entity to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(3)A person who gains, or has access to, alleged offender information disclosed to an accredited media entity under this section must not—(a)intentionally disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone, other than under this section; or(b)recklessly disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone.Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(4)However, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender to another person (the recipient) if—(a)the recipient is an employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity; and(b)the disclosure is necessary to enable the recipient, or another employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity, to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(5)Also, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender—(a)if the name of the alleged offender is lawfully accessible to the public in connection with the offence; or(b)in compliance with a lawful process requiring production of documents to, or giving evidence before, a court or tribunal; or(c)to the extent the disclosure is otherwise required or permitted under an Act or law.(6)In this section—accredited media entity means an entity listed as an accredited media entity in the Supreme Court’s media accreditation policy.alleged offender means an adult who has been charged with an offence by a police officer.alleged offender information means the following information about an alleged offender for an offence—(a)the name of the alleged offender;(b)the charges brought against the alleged offender for the offence;(c)details of court proceedings for the offence, including the proposed date, location and court file number;(d)any reference number assigned by the police service to the alleged offender in relation to the offence.(1)This section applies if a person, acting honestly and without negligence, discloses alleged offender information to an accredited media entity under section 40A(1).(2)The person is not liable civilly, criminally or under an administrative process for disclosing the information.(3)If subsection (2) prevents civil liability attaching to a person, the liability attaches instead to the State.(4)This section does not apply to a person who is a prescribed person under the Public Sector Act 2022, section 268 to the extent the person is protected from civil liability under section 269 of that Act.
61Amendment of s 61 (Criminal jurisdiction if maximum penalty more than 20 years)
Section 61(2)(b), after ‘352,’—
insert—398,
62Amendment of s 68 (Civil jurisdiction)
Section 68(2), definition monetary limit, ‘$750,000’—
omit, insert—$1,500,000
After section 152—
insert—153Transitional provision for Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026
(1)Section 68(2), definition monetary limit, as amended by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026, applies only in relation to an action, matter or proceeding started after the commencement.(2)For subsection (1), a proceeding includes the following—(a)a proceeding mentioned in the Fair Trading Act 1989, section 50;(b)a proceeding about a retirement village dispute under the Retirement Villages Act 1999, in relation to which section 210 of that Act applies;(c)a proceeding relating to a road compensation order under the Transport Operations (Road Use Management) Act 1995, chapter 6, part 1, division 3, in relation to which section 164AE of that Act applies.
This part amends the Evidence Act 1977.
65Amendment of s 103ZI (Application for leave)
(1)Section 103ZI(a) to (c)—
omit, insert—(a)for a summary trial or the giving of relevant recorded evidence for the trial—must be filed with the Magistrates Court at the place at which the trial will be held, and served on each other party to the trial, at least 7 days before the trial is listed to start or evidence is to be given; or(b)for a committal proceeding or the giving of relevant recorded evidence for the proceeding—must be filed with the Magistrates Court at the place at which the proceeding will be held, and served on each other party to the proceeding, at least 7 days before the proceeding is listed to start or evidence is to be given; or(c)for a trial on indictment or the giving of relevant recorded evidence for the trial—must be filed with the Supreme Court or District Court, as the case requires, and served on each other party to the trial, at least 14 days before the hearing is listed to start or evidence is to be given.(2)Section 103ZI—
insert—(2)In this section—relevant recorded evidence means—(a)evidence by a special witness given under an order or direction made or given under section 21A(2)(e); or(b)an affected child’s evidence taken at a preliminary hearing under section 21AK.
66Amendment of s 103ZJ (Application for leave out of time)
Section 103ZJ, ‘section 103ZI’—
omit, insert—section 103ZI(1)
67Amendment of s 103ZM (Determination of application for leave during summary trial, committal proceeding or trial)
(1)Section 103ZM, heading—
omit, insert—(2)Section 103ZM, from ‘In the course of’ to ‘must not’—
omit, insert—The court must not, in relation to a summary trial, committal proceeding or trial on indictment,
68Amendment of pt 9, hdg (Transitional and declaratory provisions)
Part 9, heading, ‘and declaratory’—
omit, insert—, declaratory and validating
69Amendment of pt 9, div 17, hdg (Transitional provisions for the Criminal Justice Legislation (Sexual Violence and Other Matters) Amendment Act 2024)
Part 9, division 17, after heading—
insert—See also section 184 for the meaning of originating step.
70Insertion of new pt 9, div 20
Part 9—
insert—Division 20 Transitional and validation provisions for Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026
184Meaning of originating step for div 17
(1)For division 17, an originating step for a proceeding means—(a)the arrest of the defendant in the proceeding; or(b)the making of a complaint under the Justices Act 1886, section 42 in relation to the defendant in the proceeding; or(c)the serving of a notice to appear on the defendant in the proceeding under the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000, section 382.(2)This section does not affect a proceeding in relation to which division 17 was applied before the commencement of this section.185Criminal proceeding that relates wholly or partly to charge for sexual offence
(1)This section applies to any of the following (a relevant action) done before the commencement of this section—(a)an exercise or purported exercise of a court’s jurisdiction in dealing with a leave application;(b)anything else done or purportedly done by a court or person in relation to a leave application.(2)The rights and liabilities of all persons affected by the relevant action are the same, and are taken to have always been the same, as they would be or would have been if new section 103ZI had been in force at the time of the relevant action.(3)Subsection (2) applies for all purposes, including for the purpose of a leave application made but not decided before the commencement.(4)In this section—leave application means an application for leave under part 6B, division 2.new, in relation to a provision of this Act, means the provision as in force from the commencement.
Part 11 Amendment of Housing Act 2003
This part amends the Housing Act 2003.
72Amendment of s 94B (Immunity for disclosure of particular confidential information)
(1)Section 94B(5), definition confidentiality provision, paragraph (e)—
omit.(2)Section 94B(5), definition confidentiality provision, paragraphs (f) and (g)—
renumber as paragraphs (e) and (f).
Part 12 Amendment of Information Privacy Act 2009
This part amends the Information Privacy Act 2009.
74Amendment of s 164 (Meaning of privacy complaint)
(1)Section 164(2)(a)—
omit, insert—(a)in a document held by an excluded entity; or(ab)in a document to which the privacy principle requirements do not apply; or(2)Section 164(2)(ab) and (b)—
renumber as section 164(2)(b) and (c).
75Amendment of s 164A (Response period for privacy complaints)
(1)Section 164A(4)(b)—
omit.(2)Section 164A(4)(c)—
renumber as section 164A(4)(b).
Part 13 Amendment of Integrity Act 2009
This part amends the Integrity Act 2009.
77Amendment of s 7 (Functions of integrity commissioner)
(1)Section 7(1)(a), after ‘written’—
insert—or oral
(2)Section 7(1)—
insert—(e)another function conferred under this Act or another Act.(3)Section 7—
insert—(3)Also, the integrity commissioner may authorise the deputy integrity commissioner, an appropriately qualified integrity officer or another appropriately qualified public service officer to perform a function or exercise a power to—(a)assist the integrity office to perform its functions as a statutory body under the Financial Accountability Act 2009; or(b)assist the integrity office to exercise its powers as a statutory body under the Statutory Bodies Financial Arrangements Act 1982.
78Amendment of s 15 (Request for advice)
(1)Section 15(1) and (2), after ‘written’—
insert—or oral
(2)Section 15—
insert—(5A)If the advisee makes an oral request for advice under subsection (1) or (2), the integrity commissioner must make a written record of the request.(3)Section 15(5A) and (6)—
renumber as section 15(6) and (7).
(1)Section 21(1) and (2)—
omit, insert—(1)This section applies if, under section 15, a designated person, former designated person or former ministerial advisor (each an advisee) asks the integrity commissioner for advice on an integrity or ethics issue.(2)If the request is made in writing, the integrity commissioner must give the advisee advice on the issue in writing.(2A)If the request is made orally, the integrity commissioner may—(a)give the advisee advice on the issue in the way provided under subsection (5); or(b)decide to defer considering the request until the advisee makes the request in writing.(2)Section 21—
insert—(3A)For subsection (3)(a), the integrity commissioner—(a)may give the advice orally if the integrity commissioner considers that, in the circumstances, it would be appropriate to give the advice orally; but(b)otherwise, must give the advice in writing.(3)Section 21(4), ‘However, subsection (1) does not apply’—
omit, insert—Despite subsections (2) and (3), the integrity commissioner may refuse to give the advice
(4)Section 21—
insert—(5)If the integrity commissioner gives the advice orally, the integrity commissioner must make a written record of the advice.(6)If the integrity commissioner decides to defer consideration of the request for the advice under subsection (3)(b), the integrity commissioner must—(a)notify the advisee orally or in writing of the decision; and(b)if the advisee is notified of the decision orally—make a written record of the notification.(5)Section 21(2A) to (6)—
renumber as section 21(3) to (8).
80Amendment of s 23 (Advice)
Section 23—
insert—(5)If the integrity commissioner gives the advice orally, the integrity commissioner must make a written record of the advice.
81Amendment of s 25 (Definitions for division)
(1)Section 25, definition relevant document, paragraph (a), ‘the request’—
omit, insert—any written request
(2)Section 25, definition relevant document, after paragraph (a)—
insert—(aa)any record of an oral request for advice on the ethics or integrity issue made by the integrity commissioner;(3)Section 25, definition relevant document, paragraph (b), ‘section 15(5)’—
omit, insert—section 15(4)
(4)Section 25, definition relevant document, paragraph (c), ‘section 15(6)’—
omit, insert—section 15(5)
(5)Section 25, definition relevant document, paragraph (e), ‘the advice’—
omit, insert—advice on the ethics or integrity issue
(6)Section 25, definition relevant document—
insert—(f)any record of an oral advice on the ethics or integrity issue made by the integrity commissioner;(g)any record of the notification of a decision to defer consideration of an oral request for advice on the ethics or integrity issue made by the integrity commissioner.(7)Section 25, definition relevant document, paragraphs (aa) to (g)—
renumber as paragraphs (b) to (h).
82Amendment of s 34 (Definitions for division)
(1)Section 34, definition relevant document—
insert—(da)any record of an oral advice on the interests issues made by the integrity commissioner;(2)Section 34, definition relevant document, paragraph (e), ‘the advice’—
omit, insert—advice on the interests issues
(3)Section 34, definition relevant document, paragraphs (da) and (e)—
renumber as paragraphs (e) and (f).
83Amendment of s 83 (Delegation of powers)
(1)Section 83, heading, ‘of powers’—
omit.(2)Section 83(1), after ‘this Act’—
insert—or another Act
(3)Section 83(2)—
omit, insert—(2)The integrity commissioner may delegate to an appropriately qualified integrity officer or another appropriately qualified public service officer the integrity commissioner’s functions under—(a)chapter 4, other than part 4 of that chapter; or(b)another Act.(4)Section 83(3), definition appropriately qualified—
omit.
Part 14 Amendment of Justices of the Peace and Commissioners for Declarations Act 1991
This part amends the Justices of the Peace and Commissioners for Declarations Act 1991.
85Amendment of s 20 (Oath or affirmation of office)
(1)Section 20(1), from ‘Her Majesty Queen’ to ‘Successors’—
omit, insert—His Majesty King Charles the Third, His heirs and successors
(2)Section 20(3), ‘Her’—
omit, insert—His
Part 15 Amendment of Land Act 1994
This part amends the Land Act 1994.
87Amendment of s 513 (Casino matters)
Section 513(1)—
insert—The Brisbane Casino Agreement Act 1992 was repealed by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026.
Part 16 Amendment of Land Court Act 2000
This part amends the Land Court Act 2000.
89Amendment of s 16 (Appointment of president and other members of Land Court)
Section 16(7), ‘may remain’—
omit, insert—remains
90Amendment of s 19 (Appointment of acting members)
(1)Section 19(1), after ‘person’—
insert—, including a retired judge or retired member,
(2)Section 19—
insert—(2A)However, if the person is a retired judge or retired member, the person’s appointment under subsection (1) must not extend beyond the day the person reaches 78 years of age.(3)Section 19(2A) to (4)—
renumber as section 19(3) to (5).
91Amendment of s 42 (Retirement of members)
Section 42(2)—
omit, insert—(2)Despite subsection (1)—(a)a member who, before reaching 70 years of age, starts the hearing of a proceeding remains a member until the proceeding ends; and(b)a retired judge or retired member appointed to act as a member under section 19 remains a member until the person’s appointment as acting member ends.
92Amendment of s 46 (Retirement of judicial registrars)
Section 46(2), from ‘may’ to ‘hearing’—
omit, insert—remains a judicial registrar until the proceeding
93Amendment of sch 2 (Dictionary)
Schedule 2—
insert—retired judge means a person who—(a)has been a Supreme Court judge or District Court judge; and(b)has not reached 78 years of age.retired member means a person who—(a)has been a member of the Land Court; and(b)has not reached 78 years of age.
Part 17 Amendment of Magistrates Courts Act 1921
This part amends the Magistrates Courts Act 1921.
95Insertion of new ss 3BA and 3BB
After section 3B—
insert—3BA Disclosure of alleged offender information to accredited media entities
(1)A registrar of a Magistrates Court may disclose alleged offender information to an accredited media entity.(2)The accredited media entity may use the alleged offender information only to the extent necessary to enable the entity to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(3)A person who gains, or has access to, alleged offender information disclosed to an accredited media entity under this section must not—(a)intentionally disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone, other than under this section; or(b)recklessly disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone.Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(4)However, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender to another person (the recipient) if—(a)the recipient is an employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity; and(b)the disclosure is necessary to enable the recipient, or another employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity, to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(5)Also, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender—(a)if the name of the alleged offender is lawfully accessible to the public in connection with the offence; or(b)in compliance with a lawful process requiring production of documents to, or giving evidence before, a court or tribunal; or(c)to the extent the disclosure is otherwise required or permitted under an Act or law.(6)In this section—accredited media entity means an entity listed as an accredited media entity in the Supreme Court’s media accreditation policy.alleged offender means an adult who has been charged with an offence by a police officer.alleged offender information means the following information about an alleged offender for an offence—(a)the name of the alleged offender;(b)the charges brought against the alleged offender for the offence;(c)details of court proceedings for the offence, including the proposed date, location and court file number;(d)any reference number assigned by the police service to the alleged offender in relation to the offence.(1)This section applies if a person, acting honestly and without negligence, discloses alleged offender information to an accredited media entity under section 3BA(1).(2)The person is not liable civilly, criminally or under an administrative process for disclosing the information.(3)If subsection (2) prevents civil liability attaching to a person, the liability attaches instead to the State.(4)This section does not apply to a person who is a prescribed person under the Public Sector Act 2022, section 268 to the extent the person is protected from civil liability under section 269 of that Act.
Part 18 Amendment of Ombudsman Act 2001
This part amends the Ombudsman Act 2001.
97Amendment of s 91A (Disclosure of information)
Section 91A(3), definition agency, paragraph (b), after ‘(Cwlth)’—
insert—, or the national student ombudsman established under section 21AB of that Act
98Amendment of s 92 (Secrecy)
(1)Section 92—
insert—(2A)Subsection (4) applies if—(a)the ombudsman concludes an investigation of an administrative action; and(b)information identifying the investigation or administrative action is in the public domain.(2B)A person does not disclose information in contravention of subsection (1) by making a statement about the investigation or administrative action but only to the extent the statement—(a)confirms the way in which the investigation was concluded; or(b)corrects misinformation in the public domain about the investigation or administrative action.(2)Section 92(3)—
insert—concludes, in relation to an investigation of an administrative action, includes—(a)the ombudsman refusing to investigate, or continue the investigation of, a complaint about the administrative action under section 23; and(b)the ombudsman giving a person a report about the administrative action under section 50; and(c)the ombudsman informing the complainant of the result of the investigation under section 57.misinformation means information, whether or not contained in a document, that is false or misleading.(3)Section 92(2A) to (3)—
renumber as section 92(3) to (5).
99Amendment of sch 3 (Dictionary)
Schedule 3, definition complaints entity, paragraph (b), after ‘(Cwlth)’—
insert—, or the national student ombudsman established under section 21AB of that Act
Part 19 Amendment of Penalties and Sentences Act 1992
This part amends the Penalties and Sentences Act 1992.
101Amendment of sch 1C (Prescribed offences)
Schedule 1C, entry for the Criminal Code—
insert—•section 400 (Attempted stealing of valuable metal item or component)
Part 20 Amendment of Personal Injuries Proceedings Act 2002
This part amends the Personal Injuries Proceedings Act 2002.
103Amendment of s 75A (Indexation of particular amounts)
Section 75A(8)—
insert—average weekly earnings, for a financial year, means the amount of Queensland full-time adult persons ordinary time earnings declared by the Australian Statistician in the original series of the statistician’s average weekly earnings publication most recently published before the start of the financial year.
Part 21 Amendment of Police Service Administration Act 1990
This part amends the Police Service Administration Act 1990.
105Amendment of s 10.2 (Authorisation of disclosure)
Section 10.2(2), after ‘10.2B’—
insert—, 10.2CC
106Amendment of pt 10, div 1, sdiv 3, hdg (Information disclosure by direct data feed)
Part 10, division 1, subdivision 3, heading, ‘by direct data feed’—
omit, insert—to media
107Insertion of new ss 10.2CB–10.2CE
Before section 10.2D—
insert—10.2CB Definitions for subdivision
In this subdivision—accredited media entity means an entity listed as an accredited media entity in the Supreme Court’s media accreditation policy.alleged offender, for an offence, see section 10.2CC(1)(b).alleged offender information means the following information about an alleged offender for an offence—(a)the name of the alleged offender;(b)the charges brought against the alleged offender for the offence;(c)details of court proceedings for the offence, including the proposed date, location and court file number;(d)any reference number assigned by the service to the alleged offender in relation to the offence.10.2CC Requirement to disclose alleged offender information to accredited media entities
(1)This section applies if—(a)the commissioner publishes a formal public statement (a media release) on the commissioner’s website about an offence; and(b)the media release includes a statement that an adult (the alleged offender) has been charged with the offence by a police officer.(2)If an accredited media entity asks the commissioner for alleged offender information for the offence, the commissioner must disclose to the entity the alleged offender information that is in the possession of the commissioner.(3)The commissioner must comply with the requirements prescribed by regulation in relation to the disclosure.(4)However, the commissioner must not disclose the name of the alleged offender to the extent disclosure is restricted or prohibited under an order of a court.(5)The commissioner may enter into an arrangement with the chief executive (justice) for the disclosure of alleged offender information by the chief executive (justice) to an accredited media entity.(6)If an arrangement mentioned in subsection (5) is in effect—(a)subsections (2) to (4) apply in relation to the chief executive (justice) as if a reference to the commissioner in those provisions included a reference to the chief executive (justice); and(b)section 10.2CD applies in relation to the chief executive (justice).(7)For subsection (6)(a), subsections (2) to (4) apply in relation to alleged offender information in the possession of the chief executive (justice), regardless of whether the chief executive (justice) possesses the information under the arrangement or for another reason.(8)The accredited media entity may use the alleged offender information disclosed under this section only to the extent necessary to enable the entity to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(9)In this section—chief executive (justice) means the chief executive of the department in which the Supreme Court of Queensland Act 1991 is administered.10.2CD Protection from liability
(1)This section applies if a person, acting honestly and without negligence, discloses alleged offender information to an accredited media entity under section 10.2CC.(2)The person is not liable civilly, criminally or under an administrative process for disclosing the information.(3)If subsection (2) prevents civil liability attaching to a person, the liability attaches instead to the State.(4)This section does not apply to the extent the person is protected from civil liability under—(a)section 10.5; or(b)the Public Sector Act 2022, section 269.10.2CE Further disclosure of alleged offender information prohibited
(1)This section applies in relation to a person who gains, or has access to, alleged offender information disclosed to an accredited media entity under section 10.2CC for an offence.(2)The person must not—(a)intentionally disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone, other than under this section; or(b)recklessly disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone.Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(3)However, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender to another person (the recipient) if—(a)the recipient is an employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity; and(b)the disclosure is necessary to enable the recipient, or another employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity, to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(4)Also, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender—(a)if the name of the alleged offender is lawfully accessible to the public in connection with the offence; or(b)in compliance with a lawful process requiring production of documents to, or giving evidence before, a court or tribunal; or(c)to the extent the disclosure is otherwise required or permitted under an Act or law.
108Amendment of sch 2 (Dictionary)
Schedule 2—
insert—accredited media entity, for part 10, division 1, subdivision 3, see section 10.2CB.alleged offender, for part 10, division 1, subdivision 3, see section 10.2CC(1)(b).alleged offender information, for part 10, division 1, subdivision 3, see section 10.2CB.
Part 22 Amendment of Property Law Act 2023
This part amends the Property Law Act 2023.
110Amendment of s 191 (Discharge of debt or legal thing in action when no actual notice of assignment)
Section 191(6)—
renumber as section 191(4).
Part 23 Amendment of Public Records Act 2023
This part amends the Public Records Act 2023.
112Amendment of s 11 (Requirements for particular public authorities)
(1)Section 11(4), definition chief executive, paragraph (c)—
omit.(2)Section 11(4), definition chief executive, paragraph (d)—
renumber as paragraph (c).
Part 24 Amendment of Right to Information Act 2009
This part amends the Right to Information Act 2009.
114Amendment of s 114 (Vexatious applicants)
(1)Section 114(8), definition access or amendment action—
insert—(e)an IP Act access or amendment action.For an IP Act access or amendment action, or purported IP Act access or amendment action, made but not finalised before 1 July 2025, see the Information Privacy Act 2009, section 217.(2)Section 114(8)—
insert—IP Act access or amendment action means an access or amendment action under the Information Privacy Act 2009, repealed section 127 as in force from time to time before 1 July 2025.
115Insertion of new ch 7, pt 11
Chapter 7—
insert—206T Vexatious applicant declarations not decided before commencement
(1)This section applies if, before the commencement, the information commissioner—(a)was considering whether to make a declaration under section 114(1) in relation to a person; and(b)had not decided whether to make the declaration in relation to the person.(2)Section 114 as in force on the commencement applies in relation to the decision.
116Amendment of sch 1 (Documents to which this Act does not apply)
(1)Schedule 1, section 1(a)(iv) and (v)—
omit, insert—(iv)the Office of National Intelligence;(v)the Australian Geospatial-Intelligence Organisation;(2)Schedule 1, section 1(a)(vii)—
omit, insert—(vii)the Australian Signals Directorate;(viii) the National Cyber Security Coordinator;(3)Schedule 1, section 1—
insert—(2)In this section—Australian Geospatial-Intelligence Organisation means the part of the Commonwealth department in which the Defence Act 1903 (Cwlth) is administered known as the Australian Geospatial-Intelligence Organisation.Australian Secret Intelligence Service means the organisation known as the Australian Secret Intelligence Service continued in existence under the Intelligence Services Act 2001 (Cwlth), section 16.Australian Security Intelligence Organisation means the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation continued in existence under the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979 (Cwlth), section 6.Australian Signals Directorate means the organisation known as the Australian Signals Directorate continued in existence under the Intelligence Services Act 2001 (Cwlth), section 27A.Defence Intelligence Organisation means the part of the Commonwealth department in which the Defence Act 1903 (Cwlth) is administered known as the Defence Intelligence Organisation.National Cyber Security Coordinator see the Cyber Security Act 2024 (Cwlth), section 8.Office of National Intelligence means the body continued in existence under the Office of National Intelligence Act 2018 (Cwlth), section 6 under the name Office of National Intelligence.
Part 25 Amendment of Second-hand Dealers and Pawnbrokers Act 2003
This part amends the Second-hand Dealers and Pawnbrokers Act 2003.
118Amendment of s 6 (Acting as licensee)
Section 6(1), penalty—
omit, insert—Maximum penalty—
(a)for carrying on a business of dealing in second-hand property that is scrap metal—400 penalty units or 2 years imprisonment; or(b)otherwise—200 penalty units.
119Amendment of s 37 (Second-hand dealer must keep a transactions register)
Section 37(5), definition second-hand property transaction—
insert—(c)second-hand property that is scrap metal.
120Amendment of s 47 (Second-hand dealer must ask for information)
(1)Section 47(a) and (b)—
omit, insert—(a)either—(i)if the second-hand property is scrap metal—the person’s name, date of birth and residential address; or(ii)otherwise—the person’s name and address;(b)verification of—(i)if the second-hand property is scrap metal—the person’s name, date of birth and residential address in accordance with subsection (2); or(ii)otherwise—the person’s name and address;(2)Section 47—
insert—(2)For subsection (1)(b)(i)—(a)verification of the person’s name and date of birth must be obtained by sighting a document that—(i)shows photographic identification of the person; and(ii)states the person’s date of birth; and(iii)states the unique identifier for the document; andExamples of a document for paragraph (a)—
•a driver licence•a passport•a photo identification card(b)verification of the person’s residential address must be obtained by sighting—(i)if the document mentioned in paragraph (a) states the person’s residential address—that document; or(ii)otherwise—another document that states the person’s name and residential address.
121Replacement of s 48 (Second-hand dealer to inform police about stolen property)
Section 48—
omit, insert—48Second-hand dealer to inform police about stolen property
(1)This section applies if—(a)a second-hand dealer is given written, printed or oral information by a police officer or another person that describes property that is stolen or unlawfully obtained; and(b)the second-hand dealer acquires or possesses second-hand property that may be the property described in the information.(2)The second-hand dealer must advise a police officer about the second-hand property as soon as practicable after becoming aware that the property may be stolen or unlawfully obtained.Maximum penalty—
(a)if the second-hand property is scrap metal—(i)for a first offence—200 penalty units; or(ii)for a second offence—250 penalty units; or(iii)for a third offence—300 penalty units; or(b)otherwise—200 penalty units.
122Amendment of s 71 (Pawnbroker to inform police about stolen property)
Section 71(1)—
omit, insert—(1)This section applies if—(a)a pawnbroker is given written, printed or oral information by a police officer or another person that describes property that is stolen or unlawfully obtained; and(b)the pawnbroker acquires or possesses property that may be the property described in the information.
123Amendment of sch 3 (Dictionary)
(1)Schedule 3, definition second-hand property—
omit.(2)Schedule 3—
insert—scrap metal—(a)means property that—(i)is made from or contains metal; and(ii)is acquired, sold or disposed of as scrap for recycling or reprocessing of the metal; but(b)does not include property prescribed by regulation for this definition.second-hand property means—(a)property that has been used, including scrap metal; but(b)does not include—(i)newspapers, books, pamphlets, periodicals or other printed publications; or(ii)stamps or coins; or(iii)property returned for refund or exchange by a person who purchased it as new property; or(iv)motor vehicle batteries; or(v)used tyres removed from a car, motorbike or trailer within the meaning of the Transport Operations (Road Use Management) Act 1995; or(vi)other property prescribed by regulation for this definition.(3)Schedule 3, definition nominated property, paragraph (a), after ‘other than’—
insert—scrap metal or
(4)Schedule 3, definition nominated property, paragraph (b), ‘or dishwasher’—
omit, insert—, dishwasher or scrap metal
Part 26 Amendment of Security Providers Act 1993
This part amends the Security Providers Act 1993.
125Amendment of s 10 (Application)
Section 10(2), ‘made in the approved form and must be accompanied by the fee prescribed under a regulation’—
omit, insert—in the approved form and accompanied by the fee prescribed by regulation
126Amendment of s 15 (Imposed conditions)
Section 15(4), ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
127Amendment of s 17 (Amendment of licence on application)
Section 17(2), ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
128Amendment of s 20 (Renewal of unrestricted licence)
(1)After section 20(1)—
insert—(1AA)The application must be in the approved form and accompanied by the fee prescribed by regulation.(2)Section 20(2)—
omit, insert—(2)The chief executive, by written notice, may ask the licensee to do any of the following within a reasonable period of at least 28 days stated in the notice—(a)give the chief executive the documents or information the chief executive reasonably requires for deciding the application;(b)if the licensee is required to pay costs under section 12AA(1) and has failed to do so—pay the costs;(c)if the application was not accompanied by the fee under subsection (2) or (12)—pay the fee.(2AA)If the licensee does not comply with the request within the stated period—(a)the application is taken to have been withdrawn; and(b)the licensee’s licence ends at the end of the stated period.(3)Section 20(2A), ‘Despite subsection (2), but without’—
omit, insert—Without
(4)Subsection (5)(a) and (b)—
omit, insert—(a)the chief executive renews the licence; or(b)the chief executive refuses under section 22 or 28(2) to renew the licence; or(c)the licensee withdraws the application; or(d)the application is taken to have been withdrawn under subsection (5)(a).(5)Section 20(6), ‘subsection (1A)’—
omit, insert—subsection (3)
(6)Section 20(9) and (10), ‘subsection (8)’—
omit, insert—subsection (12)
(7)Section 20(1AA) to (10)—
renumber as section 20(2) to (14).
129Amendment of s 25B (Approval of security industry associations)
Section 25B, ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
130Amendment of s 27 (Fingerprints to be taken)
Section 27(1), ‘or 20(7)’—
omit, insert—or 20(11)
131Amendment of s 31C (Application for temporary permit)
Section 31C(2)(b), ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
132Amendment of s 31F (Permit holder taken to hold appropriate licence if complying with conditions)
Section 31F(2), note, ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
133Replacement of pt 5, hdg (Transitional provisions for Security Providers Amendment Act 2007)
Part 5, heading—
omit, insert—Division 1 Transitional provisions for Security Providers Amendment Act 2007
134Amendment of s 55 (Definitions for pt 5)
(1)Section 55, heading, ‘pt 5’—
omit, insert—division
(2)Section 55, ‘In this part’—
omit, insert—In this division
135Replacement of pt 6, hdg (Declaratory provision)
Part 6, heading—
omit, insert—Division 2 Declaratory provision for Justice (Fair Trading) Legislation Amendment Act 2008
136Replacement of pt 7, hdg (Transitional provisions for Fair Trading (Australian Consumer Law) Amendment Act 2010)
Part 7, heading—
omit, insert—Division 3 Transitional provisions for Fair Trading (Australian Consumer Law) Amendment Act 2010
137Replacement of pt 8, hdg (Transitional provision for Weapons Amendment Act 2011)
Part 8, heading—
omit, insert—Division 4 Transitional provision for Weapons Amendment Act 2011
138Replacement of pt 9, hdg (Transitional provision for Criminal Law (Criminal Organisations Disruption) and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2013)
Part 9, heading—
omit, insert—Division 5 Transitional provision for Criminal Law (Criminal Organisations Disruption) and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2013
139Replacement of pt 10, hdg (Transitional provisions for Serious and Organised Crime Legislation Amendment Act 2016)
Part 10, heading—
omit, insert—Division 6 Transitional provisions for Serious and Organised Crime Legislation Amendment Act 2016
140Insertion of new pt 5, div 7
Part 5, as renumbered by this Act—
insert—Division 7 Transitional, declaratory and validating provisions for Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026
In this division—amended section 20 means section 20 as amended by the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026.itemised licence means a licence mentioned in the repealed regulation, schedule, for which an application for renewal could have been made.relevant fee, for an application for renewal of a relevant licence, means the fee set, under section 54(2)(c), for the renewal of the licence.relevant licence means—(a)an itemised licence; or(b)an unrestricted licence.relevant period, for an application for renewal of a relevant licence, means—(a)if the relevant licence is an itemised licence—the period starting on 3 December 2003 and ending on 30 June 2008, both days inclusive; or(b)if the relevant licence is an unrestricted licence—the period starting on 1 July 2008 and ending immediately before the commencement of the Justice and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2026.repealed regulation means the repealed Security Providers Regulation 1995 as in force from time to time during the relevant period for an application for renewal of an itemised licence.73Relevant licence renewal applications made during relevant period for applications
(1)This section applies to an application for renewal of a relevant licence made, or purportedly made, during the relevant period for the application.(2)The payment of the relevant fee for the application is taken to have been, and to have always been, a requirement for the renewal of the licence.(3)Anything done during or after the relevant period in relation to the relevant fee for the application is taken to have been, and to have always been, as valid as it would have been if the payment of the relevant fee for the application were a requirement for the renewal of the licence.Examples of a thing that may be done in relation to a relevant fee for an application—
•demand for payment of the relevant fee•payment of the relevant fee74Unrestricted licence renewal applications not decided before commencement
(1)This section applies to an application for renewal of an unrestricted licence made but not decided before the commencement.(2)Amended section 20, other than amended section 20(2), applies to the application as if a reference in amended section 20(4)(c) to the fee under subsection (2) were a reference to the fee set under section 54(2)(c) for the renewal of the licence.75Particular proceedings not decided before commencement
(1)This section applies to a proceeding in relation to an application for renewal of an unrestricted licence if the proceeding had not been decided before the commencement.(2)The payment of the relevant fee for the application is taken to have been, and to have always been, a requirement for the renewal of the licence.
141Amendment of sch 2 (Dictionary)
(1)Schedule 2, definitions bodyguard functions and crowd controller functions—
omit.(2)Schedule 2, definition prescribed identification, ‘under a regulation’—
omit, insert—by regulation
Part 27 Amendment of Supreme Court of Queensland Act 1991
This part amends the Supreme Court of Queensland Act 1991.
After section 6B—
insert—6CDeclaration about when reserve judge enters on duties of office
(1)This section applies in relation to each appointment of a person as a reserve judge under section 6A, whether or not the person has previously been appointed as a reserve judge.(2)To remove any doubt, it is declared, for the Constitution of Queensland 2001, section 59(2), that the person enters on the duties of office as a reserve judge only when the person starts to undertake the duties under the person’s first engagement under section 6B after the appointment is made.
144Amendment of s 21 (Retirement of judges)
Section 21(2)—
insert—(c)a retired Supreme Court judge appointed as a reserve judge under section 6A(1) remains a reserve judge until the judge’s appointment ends.
145Insertion of new ss 72A and 72B
After section 72—
insert—72A Disclosure of alleged offender information to accredited media entities
(1)A registrar may disclose alleged offender information to an accredited media entity.(2)The accredited media entity may use the alleged offender information only to the extent necessary to enable the entity to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(3)A person who gains, or has access to, alleged offender information disclosed to an accredited media entity under this section must not—(a)intentionally disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone, other than under this section; or(b)recklessly disclose the name of the alleged offender to anyone.Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(4)However, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender to another person (the recipient) if—(a)the recipient is an employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity; and(b)the disclosure is necessary to enable the recipient, or another employee, contractor or agent of the accredited media entity, to attend a court proceeding relating to the offence.(5)Also, the person may disclose the name of the alleged offender—(a)if the name of the alleged offender is lawfully accessible to the public in connection with the offence; or(b)in compliance with a lawful process requiring production of documents to, or giving evidence before, a court or tribunal; or(c)to the extent the disclosure is otherwise required or permitted under an Act or law.(6)In this section—accredited media entity means an entity listed as an accredited media entity in the court’s media accreditation policy.alleged offender means an adult who has been charged with an offence by a police officer.alleged offender information means the following information about an alleged offender for an offence—(a)the name of the alleged offender;(b)the charges brought against the alleged offender for the offence;(c)details of court proceedings for the offence, including the proposed date, location and court file number;(d)any reference number assigned by the police service to the alleged offender in relation to the offence.(1)This section applies if a person, acting honestly and without negligence, discloses alleged offender information to an accredited media entity under section 72A(1).(2)The person is not liable civilly, criminally or under an administrative process for disclosing the information.(3)If subsection (2) prevents civil liability attaching to a person, the liability attaches instead to the State.(4)This section does not apply to a person who is a prescribed person under the Public Sector Act 2022, section 268 to the extent the person is protected from civil liability under section 269 of that Act.
146Amendment of sch 1 (Subject matter for rules)
Schedule 1, section 23(b)—
omit, insert—(b)enforcement warrants, including enforcement warrants for the following—(i)entry on to and delivery of possession of land;(ii)seizure and sale of property;(iii)seizure and delivery of specified goods;(iv) seizure and detention of property;(v) redirection of debts or earnings;(vi) charging orders and stop orders;
Part 28 Amendment of Uniform Civil Procedure Rules 1999
This part amends the Uniform Civil Procedure Rules 1999.
148Omission of r 874 (Application of pt 8)
Rule 874—
omit.
The Brisbane Casino Agreement Act 1992, No. 52 is repealed.
© State of Queensland 2026